On the last test I was confused as to whether pre-industrial or post-industrial had lower growth rates. I understand that pre-industrial countries have Zero Population Growth because their birth and death rates are practically the same. But where does that leave post-industrial countries, whose death rates exceed their birth rates? Does that mean that now post-industrial countries have negative growth rates? I understand the social/economic/scientific reasoning behind the patterns within each individual stage, I just get confused when it comes down to contrasting the Stage 1 and Stage 4 in terms of overall growth, moreover which one experiences less of it.